Would there be a difference? Probably in the courts.
Should there be a difference? No, IF the person fathered the child. I firmly believe that BOTH parties involved in the creation of a child have responsiblities (there are exceptions but they are notoriously hard to prove in general). It is his responsibility to raise the child if the mother can't OR help with the raising if the mother is able to do it. Money, time, etc. are all a part of it.
Unfortunately, while it is fairly easy to prove that baby belongs to this woman (if she gave birth to the child it is either hers OR a surrogate and if a surrogate there will be others giving proof of the relationship). It is not possible to prove that a person fathered a child. It is easy to prove that he didn't father a given child if certain things are there (he is O neg, the mother is O neg and the Baby is ABpos or whatever). I don't know how accurate the DNA tests are for paternity for proving the relationship but last I heard they weren't 100%.
I don't think it should. However, the main point that many may argue in that respect is that a crack-addled daddy won't produce a crack-addicted child. In fact, if it's anything like what alcohol does to sperm count and how well the sperm function, it dramatically cuts down on the likelihood of getting pregnant to begin with.
In her case, it's not just the monetary aspect, but the drug aspect. Then again, I believe they've already had cases where they've charged women with neglect and/or child abuse because of willingly and knowingly abusing alcohol or drugs while pregnant.
However, I think that a dead beat dad should be held just as responsible as a dead beat mother.
The only problem with throwing either in jail is that they STILL won't have the ability to take care of their kids. And obviously monetary fines aren't going to mean squat.
That has already essentially happened in this case as well, except that it's 7 different men instead of just one. *And* the story did mention the similar case involving a man who spawned multiple times without supporting the children.
Adding fuel to the fire...
Date: 2005-01-05 06:28 pm (UTC)Re: Adding fuel to the fire...
Date: 2005-01-05 06:45 pm (UTC)Should there be a difference? No, IF the person fathered the child. I firmly believe that BOTH parties involved in the creation of a child have responsiblities (there are exceptions but they are notoriously hard to prove in general). It is his responsibility to raise the child if the mother can't OR help with the raising if the mother is able to do it. Money, time, etc. are all a part of it.
Unfortunately, while it is fairly easy to prove that baby belongs to this woman (if she gave birth to the child it is either hers OR a surrogate and if a surrogate there will be others giving proof of the relationship). It is not possible to prove that a person fathered a child. It is easy to prove that he didn't father a given child if certain things are there (he is O neg, the mother is O neg and the Baby is ABpos or whatever). I don't know how accurate the DNA tests are for paternity for proving the relationship but last I heard they weren't 100%.
Re: Adding fuel to the fire...
Date: 2005-01-05 06:48 pm (UTC)In her case, it's not just the monetary aspect, but the drug aspect. Then again, I believe they've already had cases where they've charged women with neglect and/or child abuse because of willingly and knowingly abusing alcohol or drugs while pregnant.
However, I think that a dead beat dad should be held just as responsible as a dead beat mother.
The only problem with throwing either in jail is that they STILL won't have the ability to take care of their kids. And obviously monetary fines aren't going to mean squat.
Re: Adding fuel to the fire...
Date: 2005-01-05 06:52 pm (UTC)